> Male infant circumcision, an act which would
> otherwise be considered a sexual assault resulting
> in gross bodily mutilation, is legal and paid for
> by government in many states. Is this not a law of
> religious nature? Obviously we wouldn't look at it
> that way just because there happens to be some
> overlap between religious and non-religious
> reasoning behind the law. Marriage restrictions
> are no different.
If the law mandated circumcision, that would be an impermissible establishment of religion. Here, the law is silent. Just like we don't pass a law saying that heart surgery (which, if it were not a medical procedure, would be attempted murder) is legal, we don't pass laws saying circumcision is legal. Therefore, there is no "law of religious nature" in your example, because there is no law at all. Go ahead and look at the Code of Virginia:
http://leg1.state.va.us/000/lst/LS905654.HTM I'll wait.
Circumcision is a medical procedure, and so is paid for by insurance. In cases of indigent parents, perhaps the state assists with their medical bills, but it's not something the government particularly subsidizes. In addition, circumcision is optional and requires informed consent.
Pray tell, what is the non-religious reasoning behind preventing same-sex marriage? Can't be a consent issue, because the same age-of-consent laws would apply. Can't be a procreative issue, because we allow infertile couples to marry, and fertile couples who do not intend to have kids to marry. Can't be a tax savings issue, because protecting the fisc cannot be the sole reason for discriminatory legislation, per SCOTUS. Can't be a slippery slope issue, because that's fallacious reasoning by definition. So: what's the non-religious objection?