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Once again, black and white. I find that in life there is very few times when there is 100% agreement with the whole of a group. Does every republican or democrat agree with the entirety of their party's platform? Does every catholic agree with everything that the Vatican comes out with? Does every student agree with everything their political science professor says?
And that's why I didn't say you HAVE to agree with me...just that it saddens me.
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Ah, but once again, someone gets to make decisions on you all the time. Who decides if you get to pass that english class? Who decides if you're getting that loan? Who decides that if you don't fill out your car registration form in triplicate at the DVM, you don't get to process the title? Decisions about you are made for you all the time. Why should this be any different? Rights are rarely applied equally.
But none of the things you mentioned are rights...and that is a major difference. With that said, however, I would agree that many rights have been infringed over the years by a runaway government. Does a track record of accepting unconstitutional infringements justify the next one? I say no. We shouldn't be accepting further infringements on our rights because they've been infringed in the past, we should be demanding not only no future infringements, but a roll-back of the past ones as well.
As far as Israel and Switzerland...Switzerland only recently instituted an official registration and not at the behest of its own government, but to comply with a free travel treaty. It remains to be seen whether this will cause problems, but Switzerland did not have a registration per se before enactment of the "Schengen Treaty in 2008. I'd be willing to bet that, over time, Switzerland will either be forced to abandon the treaty, or that registration scheme will come back to bite them. It just hasn't been around long enough to know for sure yet. If it does turn out to be a non-issue, it will be the first time in history.
Israel's gun restrictions would probably surprise you. While it is true that many citizens are members of the IDF and are authorized firearms ownership in that capacity, for general citizens who are not IDF members, firearms ownership is very tightly controlled. Saying that it "isn't a problem" in Israel is very much a matter of perspective.
Be that as it may...
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But in some cases, gun control is aimed at keeping guns out of the hands of criminals.
But does it work? Much like with shooting, it doesn't matter much where it's aimed, what matters is where it hits. There have been numerous studies done on the efficacy of gun control and not one of them has been able to identify a single gun control law that has reduced crime.
If there was any evidence whatsoever that any of these restrictions actually hit the targets they are supposedly aimed at, I'd have to think long and hard about my position. The fact is that they simply don't do what their proponents claim they will do.
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Can the decrease in crime be legitimately tied into an armed populace, or are they two coincidental statistics?
Excellent question. I can't prove definitively that the decrease in crime is related to relaxation of gun control laws...but there is a VERY strong correlation. Yes, the Brady bill was enacted in 1993 and the so-called "assault weapon ban" was enacted in 1994, but the decrease in crime was already well underway at that time and neither of those acts had any discernible effect on the pre-existing trend.
What did happen in the late '80's and early 90's that corresponds to the decrease in crime? Well, in 1986 there were 9 states that were "shall issue" or unrestricted for concealed carry permits...15 states had no provisions for concealed carry at all. In 1990, there were 16 shall issue states and 14 no issue states. By 1995 28 states were shall issue or unrestricted and only 8 did not allow concealed carry at all. By 1999, the numbers were 31 shall issue, 2 no issue.
The current downward trend of violent crime
began in 1991. Neither the Brady act, nor the Assault Weapon ban, had any impact on the defensive use of firearms by citizens...they were, in my opinion, irrelevant to the causes of the trend and, so, had no impact on it.
With that said, I'm the first to admit that correlation does not equal causation. The correlation that I pointed out does not "prove" that increased rates of defensive firearm ownership and carry caused the corresponding decrease in crime rates.
But what an analysis of the crime rates proves definitively is that increased gun ownership and relaxed gun control laws do not cause INCREASES in crime.
If liberalizing the laws doesn't result in a detrimental impact on society, why shouldn't they be liberalized?
If gun control laws don't decrease crime...and they demonstrably do not...then why enact them? All they do is create criminals from otherwise law abiding citizens who don't comply either due to ignorance or principle, and complicate the lives of people who aren't a danger to society to begin with.
The bottom line is that there need be no justification for liberty. What needs justification is infringement of that liberty...and, in this case, the justification simply isn't there.